02.CCNA 200-301 题库_51-100

---

title: CCNA 200-301 题库_51-100
date: 2022-07-13 16:24:16
permalink: /pages/503a31/
categories:

• 网络运维
• CCNA
• CCNA题库
  tags:
• https://jonas-wolfxin.github.io/pages/55766c/

---

CCNA 200-301 题库_51-100

51. How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control?

    A. Authorization provides access control, and authentication tracks user services

    B. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control.

    C. Authorization identifies users, and authentication provides access control

    D. Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • Authentication identifies users, Authorization provides access control, and accounting tracks user services

52. What is the difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

    A. FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC.

    B. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured.

    C. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC.

    D. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP.

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • In local mode, an AP creates two CAPWAP tunnels to the WLC. One is for management, the other is data traffic. This behavior is known as "centrally switched" because the data traffic is switched(bridged) from the ap to the controller where it is then routed by some routing device.
    • The FlexConnect AP can locally switch traffic between a VLAN and SSID when the CAPWAP tunnel to the WLC is down.
    • FlexConnect allows data traffic to be switched locally and not go back to the controller. It basically causes the AP to behave like an autonomous AP, but be managed by the WLC. In this mode, the AP can still function even if it looses connection with the controller.

53. which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

    A. allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts

    B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

    C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with a private range
    addressing

    D. enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

    Correct Answer A

    Explanation:

54. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use to Host A?

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    A. 10.10.10.0/28

    B. 10.10.13.0/25

    C. 10.10.13.144/28

    D. 10.10.13.208/29

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

55. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence(FCS). Which two interface counters are incremented?

    A. input errors

    B. frame

    C. giants

    D. CRC

    E. runts

    Correct Answer A, D

    Explanation:

    • A. input errors - total sum of many counters (Includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.
    • B. frame - received frames that have an illegal format
    • C. giants - frames that exceed the maximum frame size
    • D. CRC - received frames that did not pass the FCS math
    • E. runts - frames that did not meet the minimum frame size
    Ref: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1904.html

56. what event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a Syslog server?

    A. An interface line has changed status

    B. An ICMP connection has been built

    C. A certificate has expired

    D. A TCP connection has been torn down

    Correct Answer A Explanation:
    
    0 Emergencies: System shutting down due to missing fan tray
    1 Alerts: Temperature limit exceeded
    2 Critical: Memory allocation failures
    3 Errors: Interface Up/Down messages
    4 Warnings: Configuration file written to server, via SNMP request
    5 Notifications: Line protocol Up/Down
    6 Information: Access-list violation logging
    7 Debugging: Debug messages

57. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

    A. platform-as-a-service

    B. software-as-a-service

    C. network-as-a-service

    D. infrastructure-as-a-service

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • Below are the 3 cloud supporting services cloud providers provide to customer:
    • PaaS (Platform as a Service): are used for applications, and other development, while providing cloud components to software. PaaS is a framework they can build upon to develop or customize applications. PaaS makes the development, testing, and deployment of applications quick, simple, and cost-effective. As a result, PaaS frees developers from having to install in-house hardware and software to develop or run a new application.
    • SaaS (Software as a Service): SaaS uses the web to deliver applications that are managed by a third-party vendor and whose interface is accessed on the clients' side. Most SaaS applications can be run directly from a web browser without any downloads or installations required, although some require plugins.
    • With IaaS, a provider supplies the basic compute, storage and networking infrastructure along with the hypervisor -- the virtualization layer. Users must then create virtual instances such as VMs and containers, install OSes, support applications and data, and handle all of the configuration and management associated with those tasks. Some examples of IaaS services are DigitalOcean, AWS, Azure and Google Compute Engine.
    Ref: https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definition/Platform-as-a-Service-PaaS

58. Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

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    A. 192.168.16.0/21

    B. 192.168.16.0/24

    C. 192.168 26.0/26

    D. 192.168.16.0/27

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    1. A router evaluates and selects routes in the following order:
    2. Prefix Length - The longest-matching route is preferred first. Prefix length trumps all other route attributes.
    3. Administrative Distance - In the event there are multiple routes to a destination with the same prefix length, the route learned by the protocol with the lowest administrative distance is preferred.
    4. Metric - In the event there are multiple routes learned by the same protocol with same prefix length, the route with the lowest metric is preferred. (If two or more of these routes have equal metrics, load balancing across them may occur.)
    source : https://packetlife.net/blog/2010/aug/16/route-preference/

59. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

    A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

    B. The IP domain-name command must be configured on the switch

    C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch

    D. A console password must be configured on the switch

    E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch

    Correct Answer A,B

    Explanation:

    • Ref: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-/secure-shell-ssh/4145-ssh.html

60. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP after the NAT has taken place?

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    A. 10.4.4.4

    B. 10.4.4.5

    C. 172.23.103.10

    D. 172.23.104.4

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • After the NAT has taken place, the private address 10.4.4.4 and 10.4.4.5 are being NATTED to public address 172.23.104.3 and 172.23.104.4 respectively, which are the source addresses. Therefore the correct answer should be both 172.23.104.3 and 172.23.104.4, but it's none of the options, but the closest is option D
    • Inside local = private source IP;
      Inside global = public source IP (after the NAT has taken place);
      Outside global = public destination IP;
      Inside global = private destination IP

61. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

    A. lldp timer

    B. lldp holdtime

    C. lldp reinit

    D. lldp tlv-select

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • lldp holdtime seconds: Specify the amount of time a receiving device should hold the information from your device before discarding it
    • lldp reinit delay: Specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on an interface
    • lldp timer rate: Set the sending frequency of LLDP updates in seconds

          (config)#lldp ?
              holdtime Specify the holdtime (in sec) to be sent in packets
              reinit Delay (in sec) for LLDP initialization on any interface
              run Enable LLDP
              timer Specify the rate at which LLDP packets are sent (in sec)
              tlv-select Selection of LLDP TLVs to send
           

    Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/3560_scg/swlldp.html

62. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored as a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

    

    A. SW1

    B. SW2

    C. SW3

    D. SW4

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • Keyword local authentication: "login local" configuration
    • Keyword cryptographic hash: "secret" configuration
    • Keyword SSH access: "live vty 0 15" configuration

63. which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

    A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

    B. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

    C. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

    D. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

64. when configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined?

    (Choose two)

    A. 2000::/3

    B. 2000::5

    C. FC00::/7

    D. FF02::1

    E. FF02::2

    Correct Answer D,E

    Explanation:

    • All-nodes link-local multicast group FF02::1.
      When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and solicited-node (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all- node group is used to communicate with all interfaces on the local link, and the solicited-nodes multicast group is required for link-layer address resolution.
    • All-routers link-local multicast group FF02::2. Routers also join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2).
    • IPv6 classifications:
    • Multicast - FF
      Global Unicast - 2/3
      Unique Local - FC/FD
      Link Local - FE80
    Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-multicast.html

65. Which option about JSON is true?

    A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

    B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays

    C. used for storing information

    D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

    Correct Answer B

    Explanation:

    • JSON data is written as name/value pairs. A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value.
    • JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type string, number, object, array, boolean or null.

66. Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

    A. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

    B. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

    C. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

    D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • Most traditional devices use a distributed architecture, in which each control plane is resided in a networking device. Therefore they need to communicate with each other via messages to work correctly.
    • In contrast to distributed architecture, centralized (or controller-based) architectures centralizes the control of networking devices into one device, called SDN controller.

67. What are the two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two)

    A. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

    B. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network.

    C. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic.

    D. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network.

    E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines, and network gear reside on the Internet.

    Correct Answer A, D

    Explanation:

    • Each virtualization solution have virtual switches (logical network), these virtual switches allows virtual machines to communicate on the network. We also assign vlan tag on these switches or make them trunk.
    • NICs are not part of VMs. Virtual switches of VMs are what connect vitrual NICs of VMs to physical network ( say a router).

68. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two)

    

    A. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

    B. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

    C. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

    D. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

    E. This is a root bridge

    Correct Answer A, B

    Explanation:

    • Rapid STP or RSTP is IEEE standard; Rapid PVST+ is cisco proprietary

69. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
    A. ip address dhcp
    B. ip helper-address
    C. ip dhcp pool
    D. ip dhcp client

    Correct Answer A

    Explanation:

    • If we want to get an IP address from the DHCP server on a Cisco device, we can use the command ip address dhcp.
    • Note: The command ip helper-address DHCPServerIPAddress enables a router to become a DHCP Relay Agent.

70. Refer to the exhibit. A router received these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in the routing table? (Choose two)

    

    A. iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

    B. RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

    C. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

    D. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

    E. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

    Correct Answer C, D, E

    Explanation:

    
    
    • Ref: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/8651-21.html

71. what is the default behavior of a layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

    A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

    B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to the CPU for destination MAC address learning

    C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN

    D. The Layer 2 switch dorps the received frame

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the switch sends the frame out all other ports that are in the same VLAN as the received frame. This is called flooding. It does not flood the frame out the same port on which the frame was received.

72. Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration started to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)

    

    A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

    B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

    C. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

    D. The ACL must be configured with the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

    E. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

    Correct Answer B, C

    Explanation:

73. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

    A. Enable NTP authentication

    B. Verify the time zone

    C. Disable NTP broadcasts

    D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server

    E. Set the NTP server private key

    Correct Answer A, D

    Explanation:

    • To configure authentication, perform this task in privileged mode:
    • Step 1: Configure an authentication key pair for NTP and specify whether the key will be trusted or untrusted.
      Step 2: Set the IP address of the NTP server and the public key.
      Step 3: Enable NTP client mode.
      Step 4: Enable NTP authentication.
      Step 5: Verify the NTP configuration.
    • The question required to configure client mode, i think NTP server "private key" should not be valid. It should be "public key" Reference - https://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps-679/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008007d785.html#14543
    • 
      Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4000/8-2glx/configuration/guide/ntp.html
      Reference:: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4000/8-2glx/configuration/guide/ntp.html#wp1019854

74. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers. A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

    A. port-to-multipoint

    B. broadcast

    C. point-to-point

    D. non-broadcast

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • The default OSPF network type for HDLC and PPP on Serial link is point-to-point.
    • while the default OSPF network type for Ethernet link is Broadcast

75. Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

    A. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

    B. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

    C. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

    D. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

    E. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

    Correct Answer A, E

    Explanation:

    • Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 = washington to atlanta (always up hence, static AD=1)
    • Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::3 5 = NY to washington (backup route hence AD = 5)

76. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?

    A. switchport access vlan 67

    B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

    C. switchport private-vlan association host 67

    D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • Native VLAN: The native VLAN is the one into which untagged traffic will be put when it’s received on a trunk port. This makes it possible for your VLAN to support legacy devices or devices that don’t tag their traffic like some wireless access points and simply network attached devices.

77. What are the two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)

    A. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections.

    B. The data can pass through the cladding.

    C. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber.

    D. The glass core component is encased in a cladding.

    E. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections.

    Correct Answer C, D

    Explanation:

    • There are 3 kind of wiring mainly when we talk about networking: Fiber, Coaxial cable, twisted pair. The last 2 are Copper wiring
    • BNC Connector is for Coaxial Cable
    • the structure of fiber is: Jacket encase Buffer, Buffer encase Cladding, Cladding encase core. We uses light to transmit data through the core.
    • RJ45 is a connector is for twisted pair,

78. which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the internet?

    A. link-local

    B. unique local

    C. multicast

    D. global unicast

    Correct Answer B

    Explanation:

    • link local addresses do not communicate with other subnets. IPv6 defines rules so the packets sent to any link-local addresses should not be forwarded by any router to another subnet.

79. Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?

    A. management

    B. protected frame

    C. action

    D. control

    Correct Answer

    Explanation:

    • There are three main types of 802.11 frames: the Data Frame, the Management Frame and the Control Frame. Association Response belongs to Management Frame. Association response is sent in response to an association request.
    • Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/802.11_Frame_Types
    • Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PCpnRqKCWCQ

80. which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

    A. IPv6 address

    B. OSPF process ID

    C. OSPF MD5 authentication key

    D. OSPF stub flag

    E. OSPF area

    Correct Answer B, E

    Explanation:

    • https://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=1868078#:~:text=2,area%20area-id
    • https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/xe-3e/iro-xe-3e-book/iro-mode-ospfv2.pdf
    • https://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc2328.txt#:~:text=Area%20ID%0A%20%20%20%20%20%20%20%20%20%20%20%20The%20OSPF%20area%20that%20the%20packet%20is%20being%20sent%20into

81. Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected?

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    A. There is a native VLAN mismatch

    B. Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

    C. The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN

    D. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

    Correct Answer A

    Explanation:

82. Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

    A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a Syslog message is generated

    B. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

    C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

    D. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • PoE monitoring and policing compares the power consumption on ports with the administrative maximum value (either a configured maximum value or the port's default value). If the power consumption on a monitored port exceeds the administrative maximum value, the following actions occur:
    • A syslog message is issued.
    • The monitored port is shut down and error-disabled.
    • The allocated power is freed.
    Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/power_over_ethernet.pdf

83. What are the two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

    A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

    B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

    C. It moves the control plane to a central point

    D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

    E. It uses Telnet to report system issues

    Correct Answer B, C

    Explanation:

    • controller-based networking A style of building computer networks that use a controller that centralizes some features and provides application programming interfaces (APIs) that allow for software interactions between applications and the controller (northbound APIs) and between the controller and the network devices (southbound APIs).
    • centralized control plane An approach to architecting network protocols and products that places the control plane functions into a centralized function rather than distributing the function across the networking devices.

84. Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

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    A. adminadmin123

    B. default

    C. testing 1234

    D. cisco123

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • Enable Secret overrides the Enable Password command

85. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice-over WLAN deployment?

    A. Bronze

    B. Platinum

    C. Silver

    D. Gold

    Correct Answer B

    Explanation:

    • Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution WLANs support four levels of QoS: Platinum/Voice, Gold/Video, Silver/Best Effort (default), and Bronze/Background.
    • Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/ b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_01010111.html

86. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

    A. cost

    B. administrative distance

    C. metric

    D. as-path

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • If a router learns two different paths for the same network from the same routing protocol, it has to decide which route is better and will be placed in the routing table. Metric is the measure used to decide which route is better (lower number is better). Each routing protocol uses its own metric.
    • For example, RIP uses hop counts as a metric, while OSPF uses cost.

87. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

    

    A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

    B. Router2 is using the default hello timer.

    C. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

    D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched

    Correct Answer B

    Explanation:

    • the default hello time is 10 seconds which causes a mismatch

88. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for the delivery of packets?

    A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no data corruption; UDP provides message acknowledgment and retransmits data if lost.

    B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once; UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing.

    C. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

    D. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

    Correct Answer B

    Explanation:

89. Which output displays a JSON data representation?

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    C.

    D.[外链图片转存失败,源站可能有防盗链机制,建议将图片保存下来直接上传(img-vUyz8DF8-1661764332262)(https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/gh/Wolfxin/MyPicGo/img/202207131539928.png)]

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • JSON uses ":" and ","
    • It does not use ".", ";" and "-"

90. Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

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    A. 0

    B. 110

    C. 38443

    D. 3184439

    Correct Answer C

    Explanation:

    • We have two different routes which covers this.
    • The Static 172.16.0.0/24.
    • The OSPF 172.16.0.128/25.
    • Now with the Longest Prefix Match rule the second route is selected and the correct metric for the route 17216.2.202 will option C.

91. A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

    A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

    B. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

    C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

    D. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

    Correct Answer B

    Explanation:

92. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

    A. Physical access control

    B. Social engineering attack

    C. brute force attack

    D. user awareness

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • This is a training program which simulates an attack, not a real attack (as it says ג€The webpage that opens reports that it was safeג€) so we believed it should be called a ג€user awarenessג€ program. Therefore the best answer here should be ג€user awarenessג€.
    • This is the definition of ג€User awarenessג€ from CCNA 200-301 Offical Cert Guide Book: ג€User awareness: All users should be made aware of the need for data confidentiality to protect corporate information, as well as their own credentials and personal information. They should also be made aware of potential threats, schemes to mislead, and proper procedures to report security incidents. ג€
    • Note: Physical access control means infrastructure locations, such as network closets and data centers, should remain securely locked.

93. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

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    A. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

    B. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

    C. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

    D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

94. Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

    

    A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

    B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

    C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

    D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

    Correct Answer B

    Explanation:

    • 802.1q trunking inserts a four-byte 802.1q tag field into frames sent over the trunk, which contain VLAN information. The 802.1q tag is inserted into each frame transferred over the trunk except for frames transmitted on the native VLAN, which are sent untagged.
    • In most cases, the native VLAN has to match on both sides of the trunk unless there is a specific unusual configuration requirement, which is outside the scope of this document. If the native VLANs do not match, the switch will log Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) messages stating the mismatch. While not catastrophic, this setup effectively causes the two different native VLANs to be merged into one larger L2 broadcast domain (VLAN). These two VLANs will attempt to calculate one common Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) topology for such bridged native VLANs, with the risk of eventually exceeding the maximum supported STP diameter

95. which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address

    A. 2000::/3

    B. FC00::/7

    C. FE80::/10

    D. FF00::/8

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast and this is the IPv6 type of address the question wants to ask.
    • FE80::/10 range is used for link-local addresses. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on the current subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).

96. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?

    A. The link is downstate.

    B. The link is in an error disables state

    C. The link becomes an access port.

    D. The link becomes a trunk port.

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

    • Dynamic Auto — Makes the Ethernet port willing to convert the link to a trunk link. The port becomes a trunk port if the neighboring port is set to trunk or dynamic desirable mode. This is the default mode for some switchports.
    • Dynamic Desirable — Makes the port actively attempt to convert the link to a trunk link. The port becomes a trunk port if the neighboring Ethernet port is set to trunk, dynamic desirable or dynamic auto mode.

97. Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?

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    A. show ip route

    B. show ip interface

    C. show interface

    D. show cdp neighbor

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

98. Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?

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    A. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

    B. It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

    C. It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

    D. It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to Gigabit Ethernet0/1

    Correct Answer A

    Explanation:

    • AD for the new static route is 120, which is bigger than 110 of OSPF

          R1(config)#ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1 ?
            1-255    Distance metric for this route
            multicast  multicast route
            name       Specify name of the next hop
            permanent  permanent route
            tag        Set tag for this route
            track      Install route depending on tracked item
        

99. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

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    A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

    B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

    C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

    D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

    Correct Answer D

    Explanation:

100. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
     A. WEP
     B. RC4
     C. AES
     D. TKIP

     Correct Answer C

     Explanation:

     • Many routers provide WPA2-PSK (TKIP), WPA2-PSK (AES), and WPA2-PSK (TKIP/AES) as options. TKIP is actually an older encryption protocol introduced with WPA to replace the very-insecure WEP encryption at the time. TKIP is actually quite similar to WEP encryption. TKIP is no longer considered secure, and is now deprecated. In other words, you shouldn't be using it.
     • AES is a more secure encryption protocol introduced with WPA2 and it is currently the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK.

mary>Correct Answer
D

Explanation:

• 
  

100. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
     A. WEP
     B. RC4
     C. AES
     D. TKIP

     Correct Answer C

     Explanation:

     • Many routers provide WPA2-PSK (TKIP), WPA2-PSK (AES), and WPA2-PSK (TKIP/AES) as options. TKIP is actually an older encryption protocol introduced with WPA to replace the very-insecure WEP encryption at the time. TKIP is actually quite similar to WEP encryption. TKIP is no longer considered secure, and is now deprecated. In other words, you shouldn't be using it.
     • AES is a more secure encryption protocol introduced with WPA2 and it is currently the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK.